2025 Exams4Collection CompTIA SK0-005 Dumps and Exam Test Engine
CompTIA SK0-005 DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
The SK0-005 exam is ideal for IT professionals who work with servers on a regular basis, including system administrators, network administrators, and IT support technicians. It is also a valuable certification for those who are looking to advance their career in the IT industry. Earning the CompTIA Server+ certification can open up new opportunities for job roles and higher salaries, as well as provide a foundation for pursuing other advanced certifications in the future.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A technician is decommissioning a server from a production environment. The technician removes the server from the rack but then decides to repurpose the system as a lab server instead of decommissioning it. Which of the following is the most appropriate NEXT step to recycle and reuse the system drives?
- A. Degauss the drives.
- B. Update the IP schema.
- C. Wipe the drives.
- D. Reinstall the OS.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 122
An administrator is only able to log on to a server with a local account. The server has been successfully joined to the domain and can ping other servers by IP address. Which of the following locally defined settings is MOST likely misconfigured?
- A. WINS
- B. DHCP
- C. TCP
- D. DNS
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the most likely misconfigured setting because DNS is the service that resolves hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. If the DNS server is incorrect or unreachable, the administrator will not be able to log on to the server with a domain account because the server will not be able to authenticate with the domain controller. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/dns-troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 123
A server has experienced several component failures. To minimize downtime, the server administrator wants to replace the components while the server is running. Which of the following can MOST likely be swapped out while the server is still running? (Select TWO).
- A. The CPU
- B. The cache
- C. The power supply
- D. The hard drive
- E. The GPU
- F. The RAM
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The power supply and the hard drive are two components that can most likely be swapped out while the server is still running, if they support hot swapping or hot plugging. Hot swapping or hot plugging means that the device can be added or removed without shutting down the system. The operating system automatically recognizes the changes that have been made. This feature is useful for minimizing downtime and improving availability. The CPU, the GPU, the cache, and the RAM are not hot swappable and require the system to be powered off before replacing them. Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/what-is-hot-swapping/ https://www.howtogeek.com/268249/what-is-hot-swapping-and-what-devices-support-it/
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following BEST measures now much downtime an organization can tolerate Curing an unplanned outage?
- A. SLA
- B. BIA
- C. RTO
- D. MTTR
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 125
A server technician is placing a newly configured server into a corporate environment. The server will be used by members of the accounting department, who are currently assigned by the VLAN identified below:
Which of the following IP address configurations should the technician assign to the new server so the members of the accounting group can access the server?
- A. IP address: 172.16.25.254/24 Default gateway: 172.16.25.1
- B. IP address: 172.16.25.101/16 Default gateway: 172.16.25.254
- C. IP address: 172.16.25.90/24 Default gateway: 172.16.25.254
- D. IP address: 172.16.26.101/24 Default gateway: 172.16.25.254
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IP address configuration that the technician should assign to the new server so the members of the accounting group can access the server is 172.16.25.90/24 for the IP address and 172.16.25.254 for the default gateway. This configuration matches the VLAN identified in the image, which has a network address of
172.16.25.0/24 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The IP address of the server must be within the same network range as the VLAN, which is from 172.16.25.1 to 172.16.25.254, excluding the network and broadcast addresses (172.16.25.0 and 172.16.25.255). The default gateway of the server must be the same as the VLAN, which is 172.16.25.254, to allow communication with other networks or devices outside the VLAN. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective
4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.
NEW QUESTION # 126
A certain application initially uses 1TB of drive space, but this is expected to double each year for the next two years. Which of the following is the minimum number of 1TB drives that are needed in a RAID 5 configuration?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 5 is a storage configuration that uses striping with parity, providing both improved performance and fault tolerance. It requires a minimum of three disks, where data and parity information are distributed across all drives. The storage capacity of a RAID 5 array is calculated as (N - 1) * S, where N is the number of drives, and S is the size of each drive.
Storage Requirements:
* Initial Storage: 1TB
* After 1 Year: Doubles to 2TB
* After 2 Years: Doubles again to 4TB
To accommodate 4TB of data in a RAID 5 setup, we use the formula:
(N - 1) * 1TB # 4TB
Solving for N:
N - 1 # 4
N # 5
Therefore, a minimum of 5 drives, each 1TB in size, is required to meet the projected storage needs. This configuration will provide a total usable capacity of 4TB, with 1TB allocated for parity to ensure fault tolerance.
References:
* CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): RAID Levels and Types
* CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) Study Guide: Chapter on Storage Solutions
NEW QUESTION # 127
A technician is connecting a server's secondary NIC to a separate network. The technician connects the cable to the switch but then does not see any link lights on the NIC. The technician confirms there is nothing wrong on the network or with the physical connection. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
- A. Check the DHCP configuration
- B. Restart the server
- C. Configure the network on the server
- D. Enable the port on the server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A technician is configuring a server rack that will hold ten blade servers. Which of the following safety concerns should be observed? (Select three).
- A. Proper lifting techniques
- B. Rack balancing
- C. PDU installation
- D. KVM placement
- E. Separate circuits for power
- F. Floor load limitations
- G. UPS power requirements
- H. Power connector type
- I. Cable management
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
When configuring a server rack, it's important to consider:
A:loor load limitations: Server racks can be extremely heavy, especially when filled with equipment like blade servers. It is crucial to ensure that the floor can handle the load to avoid structural damage or failure.
B:ack balancing: Properly distributing the weight in a server rack is important for stability. Heavier equipment should generally be placed at the bottom to prevent the rack from becoming top-heavy and risking a tip-over.
C:roper lifting techniques: Using correct lifting techniques when placing servers into a rack is vital to prevent personal injury.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A server administrator needs to configure a server on a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses.
Which of the following subnet addresses will be the MOST efficient for this network?
- A. 255.255.255.224
- B. 255.255.255.0
- C. 255.255.255.252
- D. 255.255.255.128
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of right to downgrade?
- A. It allows a server to run on fewer resources than what is outlined in the minimum requirements document without purchasing a license
- B. It allows for a previous version of an OS to be deployed in a test environment for each current license that is purchased
- C. It allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version
- D. It allows for the return of a new OS license if the newer OS is not compatible with the currently installed software and is returning to the previously used OS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 131
An administrator is tasked with building an environment consisting of four servers that can each serve the same website. Which of the following concepts is described?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Overprovisioning
- C. Network teaming
- D. Direct access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following can be BEST described as the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage?
- A. SLA
- B. RTO
- C. MTTR
- D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
The term that best describes the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage is RTO. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable downtime for an application, system, or process after a disaster or disruption. RTO helps determine the level of urgency and resources required for restoring normal business operations. RTO is usually measured in minutes, hours, or days, depending on the criticality and impact of the service.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A server administrator just installed a new physical server and needs to harden the applications on the server. Which of the following best describes a method of application hardening?
- A. Set the boot order.
- B. Install the latest patches.
- C. Enable a BIOS password.
- D. Disable unneeded hardware.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.5, Objective 3.5
NEW QUESTION # 134
A technician is configuring a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing.
Which of the following is the most efficient
subnet mask for this connection?
- A. /30
- B. /32
- C. /29
- D. /28
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most efficient subnet mask for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing is /30. A /30 subnet mask has 255.255.255.252 as its decimal representation and
11111111.11111111.11111111.11111100 as its binary representation. This means that there are only two bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for four possible combinations: 00, 01, 10, and
11. However, the first and the last combinations are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, only two IP addresses are usable for the point-to-point connection, which is the minimum required for such a link. A /30 subnet mask is also known as a point-to-point prefix because it is commonly used for point-to-point links between routers or servers1.
A /28 subnet mask has 255.255.255.240 as its decimal representation and
11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000 as its binary representation. This means that there are four bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for 16 possible combinations. However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, 14 IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.
A /29 subnet mask has 255.255.255.248 as its decimal representation and
11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 as its binary representation. This means that there are three bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for eight possible combinations. However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, six IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is still more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.
A /32 subnet mask has 255.255.255.255 as its decimal representation and
11111111.11111111.11111111.11111111 as its binary representation. This means that there are no bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for only one possible combination: all ones.
Therefore, only one IP address is usable for the subnet, which is not enough for a point-to-point connection and would result in an invalid configuration.
Therefore, a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient choice for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing because it provides exactly two usable IP addresses without wasting any addresses or creating any conflicts1.
NEW QUESTION # 135
An administrator discovers a Bash script file has the following permissions set in octal notation;
777
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate command to ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script?
- A. chmod u=rwx
- B. chmod go-rw>:
- C. chmod u+wx
- D. chmod g-rwx
Answer: B
Explanation:
chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems.
chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. References: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod
NEW QUESTION # 136
A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should use port 22 to configure a server that requires secure remote access. Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). SSH encrypts both the authentication and data transmission between the client and the server, preventing eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. SSH can be used to perform various tasks on a server remotely, such as configuration, administration, maintenance, troubleshooting, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A company wants to deploy software to all users, Out very few of men will be using the software at any one point in time. Which of the following licensing models would be BEST lot the company?
- A. Per core
- B. Per concurrent user
- C. Per instance
- D. Per site
Answer: B
Explanation:
Per concurrent user licensing is a model that allows a fixed number of users to access the software at any one point in time. This model is best for the company that wants to deploy software to all users, but very few of them will be using the software at any one point in time. This way, the company can save money by paying only for the number of simultaneous users, rather than for every user who has access to the software. Per site licensing is a model that allows unlimited users within a specific location to use the software. Per core licensing is a model that charges based on the number of processor cores on the server where the software is installed. Per instance licensing is a model that charges based on the number of copies of the software running on different servers or virtual machines. References: https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/concurrent- use-license https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1440/software-licensing
NEW QUESTION # 138
A server technician is troubleshooting an issue regarding users who are not able to access a reporting server. The reporting server has a static IP address and is connected to a Windows domain. The technician attempts steps to narrow down the issue:
- Pings the hostname but is not successful
- Pings the IP address and is successful
- Verifies the IP and DNS settings on the NIC card are okay
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A. Reboot the computer to apply security updates to the system.
- B. Perform a tracert to the hostname and IP address.
- C. Perform an ipconfig on the host to verify the IP configurations.
- D. Verify the DNS A record for the hostname of the server.
- E. Update the DNS configuration on the host NIC card to localhost for lookups.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 139
A server is performing slowly, and users are reporting issues connecting to the application on that server. Upon investigation, the server administrator notices several unauthorized services running on that server that are successfully communicating to an external site. Which of the following are MOST likely causing the issue?
(Choose two.)
- A. Intrusion detection is enabled on the network
- B. The firewall rule for the server is misconfigured
- C. The server is infected with a virus
- D. Adware is installed on the users' devices
- E. Unnecessary services are disabled on the server
- F. SELinux is enabled on the server
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The server is infected with a virus and SELinux is enabled on the server are most likely causing the issue of unauthorized services running on the server. A virus is a type of malicious software that infects a system and performs unwanted or harmful actions, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or executing files. A virus can also create backdoors or open ports on a system to allow remote access or communication with external sites. SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that enforces mandatory access control policies on processes and files. SELinux can prevent unauthorized services from running on a server by restricting their access to resources based on their security context. However, SELinux can also cause problems if it is not configured properly or if it conflicts with other security tools.
NEW QUESTION # 140
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