[Jan 23, 2024] Lesson Brilliant PDF for the JN0-351 Tests Free Updated Today
Get New 2024 Valid Practice JNCIS-ENT JN0-351 Q&A - Testing Engine
Juniper JN0-351 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
| Topic 5 |
|
| Topic 6 |
|
| Topic 7 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 15
You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch.
In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?
- A. By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.
- B. By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.
- C. By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.
- D. By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
When the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action is implemented on a switch, if a violation occurs, the interface is disabled and a system log entry is generated1. If the switch has been configured with the port-error-disable statement, the disabled interface recovers automatically upon expiration of the specified disable timeout1. However, if the switch has not been configured for auto-recovery from port error disabled conditions, you must manually clearthe violation by running the clear ethernet-switching port-error command for the interface to send and receive traffic again1. This explanation is based on the Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) documents and learning resources available at Juniper Networks1.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Exhibit.
Which router will become the OSPF BDR if all routers are powered on at the same time?
- A. R1
- B. R4
- C. R3
- D. R2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
OSPF DR/BDR election is a process that occurs on multi-access data links. It is intended to select two OSPF nodes: one to be acting as the Designated Router (DR), and another to be acting as the Backup Designated Router (BDR).The DR and BDR are responsible for generating network LSAs for the multi-access network and synchronizing the LSDB with other routers on the same network1.
The DR/BDR election is based on two criteria: the OSPF priority and the router ID. The OSPF priority is a value between 0 and 255 that can be configured on each interface participating in OSPF. The default priority is
1. A priority of 0 means that the router will not participate in the election and will never become a DR or BDR. The router with the highest priority will become the DR, and the router with the second highest priority will become the BDR. If there is a tie in priority, then the router ID is used as a tie-breaker. The router ID is a
32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in an OSPF domain.It can be manually configured or automatically derived from the highest IP address on a loopback interface or any active interface2.
In this scenario, all routers have the same priority of 1, so the router ID will determine the outcome of the election. The router IDs are shown in the exhibit as RID values. The highest RID belongs to R4 (10.10.10.4), so R4 will become the DR. The second highest RID belongs to R3 (10.10.10.3), so R3 will become the BDR.
References:
1:OSPF DR/BDR Election: Process, Configuration, and Tuning2:OSPF Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Redundant trunk groups use spanning tree to provide loop-free redundant uplinks.
- B. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
- C. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
- D. Redundant trunk groups load balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
C is correct because Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link of a redundant trunk group (RTG) on EX Series switches. Layer 2 control traffic includes protocols such as LLDP, LACP, and STP, which are used to exchange information and coordinate actions between switches1. According to the Juniper Networks documentation2, Layer 2 control traffic is allowed to pass through both the active and the secondary links of an RTG, but data traffic is only forwarded through the active link. This allows the switches to maintain their Layer 2 adjacencies and monitor the link status on both links.
D is correct because if the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over in an RTG on EX Series switches. An RTG consists of two trunk links: an active or primary link, and a secondary or backup link2. The active link is used to forward data traffic, while the secondary link is in standby mode. If the active link fails or becomes unavailable, the secondary link immediately transitions to a forwarding state and takes over the data traffic without waiting for normal STP convergence2. This provides fast recovery and redundancy for the network.
NEW QUESTION # 18
You want to use filter-based forwarding (FBF) on your Internet peering router to load-balance traffic to two directly connected ISPs based on the source address.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
- A. RIB groups are used to copy routes from the inet. o routing table.
- B. FBF uses the no-forwarding routing instance type.
- C. RIB groups are used to hide routes in the inet. 0 routing table.
- D. FBF uses the forwarding routing instance type.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Option B is correct. Filter-based forwarding (FBF), also known as Policy Based Routing (PBR), uses the forwarding routing instance type12.
Option C is correct. Routing Information Base (RIB) groups are used to copy routes from one routing table to another34. In the context of FBF, RIB groups can be used to copy routes from the inet.0 routing table34.
Option A is incorrect. FBF does not use the no-forwarding routing instance type15.
Option D is incorrect. RIB groups are not used to hide routes in the inet.0 routing table34. They are used to share or copy routes between different routing tables34.
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch?
- A. 300 seconds
- B. 30 seconds
- C. 300 minutes
- D. 30 minutes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch is 300 seconds12. The MAC age-out timer is the maximum time that an entry can remain in the MAC table before it "ages out," or is removed31. This configuration can influence efficiency of network resource use by affecting the amount of traffic that is flooded to all interfaces1. When traffic is received for MAC addresses no longer in the Ethernet routing table, the router floods the traffic to all interfaces1.
NEW QUESTION # 20
You have DHCP snooping enabled but no entries are automatically created in the snooping database for an interface on your EX Series switch. What are two reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)
- A. Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled on the interface.
- B. The device that is connected to the interface has a static IP address.
- C. The device that is connected to the interface has performed a DHCPRELEASE.
- D. MAC limiting is enabled on the interface.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
The DHCP snooping feature in Juniper Networks' EX Series switches works by building a binding database that maps the IP address, MAC address, lease time, binding type, VLAN number, and interface information1. This database is used to filter and validate DHCP messages from untrusted sources1.
However, there are certain conditions that could prevent entries from being automatically created in the snooping database for an interface:
MAC limiting: If MAC limiting is enabled on the interface, it could potentially interfere with the operation of DHCP snooping. MAC limiting restricts the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a physical interface to prevent MAC flooding attacks1. This could inadvertently limit the number of DHCP clients that can be learned on an interface, thus preventing new entries from being added to the DHCP snooping database.
Static IP address: If the device connected to the interface is configured with a static IP address, it will not go through the DHCP process and therefore will not have an entry in the DHCP snooping database1. The DHCP snooping feature relies on monitoring DHCP messages to build its database1, so devices with static IP addresses that do not send DHCP messages will not have their information added.
Therefore, options B and C are correct. Options A and D are not correct because performing a DHCPRELEASE would simply remove an existing entry from the database1, and Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) uses the information stored in the DHCP snooping binding database but does not prevent entries from being created1.
NEW QUESTION # 21
You are configuring an IS-IS IGP network and do not see the IS-IS adjacencies established. In this scenario, what are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
- A. MTU is not at least 1492 bytes.
- B. The Level 2 routers have mismatched areas.
- C. IP subnets are not a /30 address.
- D. The lo0 interface is not included as an IS-IS interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Option A suggests that the MTU is not at least 1492 bytes. This is correct because IS-IS requires a minimum MTU of 1492 bytes to establish adjacencies1. If the MTU is less than this, IS-IS adjacencies will not be established1.
Option D suggests that the lo0 interface is not included as an IS-IS interface. This is also correct because the loopback interface (lo0) is typically used as the router ID in IS-IS1. If the loopback interface is not included in IS-IS, it could prevent IS-IS adjacencies from being established1.
Therefore, options A and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Exhibit.
You want to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers shown in the exhibit. Which three actions will you perform in this scenario? (Choose three.)
- A. Configure a cluster ID.
- B. Configure loopback interface peering.
- C. Configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses.
- D. Configure an MD5 peer authentication.
- E. Configure BGP multihop.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
A is correct because you need to configure BGP multihop to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. BGP multihop is a feature that allows BGP peers to establish a session over multiple hops, instead of requiring them to be directly connected1. By default, EBGP peers use a time-to-live (TTL) value of 1 for their packets, which means that they can only reach adjacent neighbors1. However, if you configure BGP multihop with a higher TTL value, you can allow EBGP peers to communicate over multiple routers in between1. This can provide redundancy in case of a link failure or a router failure between the EBGP peers.
B is correct because you need to configure loopback interface peering to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Loopback interface peering is a technique that uses loopback interfaces as the source and destination addresses for BGP sessions, instead of physical interfaces2. Loopback interfaces are virtual interfaces that are always up andreachable as long as the router is operational2. By using loopback interface peering, you can avoid the dependency on a single physical interface or link for the BGP session, and use multiple paths to reach the loopback address of the peer2. This can provide redundancy and load balancing for the EBGP peering.
C is correct because you need to configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses are necessary to ensure that the routers can reach each other's loopback addresses over multiple hops2. You can use static routes or dynamic routing protocols to advertise and learn the routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses2. Without these routes, the routers will not be able to establish or maintain the BGP session using their loopback interfaces.
NEW QUESTION # 23
You are asked to connect an IP phone and a user computer using the same interface on an EX Series switch.
The traffic from the computer does not use a VLAN tag, whereas the traffic from the IP phone uses a VLAN tag.
Which feature enables the interface to receive both types of traffic?
- A. MAC limiting
- B. voice VLAN
- C. native VLAN
- D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that enables an interface on an EX Series switch to receive both untagged traffic (from the computer) and tagged traffic (from the IP phone) is the voice VLAN12.
The voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs12. This allows the switch to differentiate between voice and data traffic, ensuring that voice traffic can be treated with a higher priority12. Therefore, option D is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 24
You are attempting to configure the initial two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router but there are no aggregated Ethernet interfaces available.
In this scenario, which configuration will enable these interfaces on this router?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer to your question is
Option C shows the configuration of the statement, which defines the properties of the router chassis, such as the number of aggregated Ethernet interfaces, the number of FPCs, and the number of PICs1.
To enable aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router, you need to specify the aggregated-devices statement under the chassis parameter to the desired number of interfaces2. For example, to enable two aggregated Ethernet interfaces, you can use the following configuration:
chassis { aggregated-devices { ethernet { device-count 2; } } }
Option C shows this configuration with the device-count set to 2, which will enable two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on the router. The other options do not show this configuration and will not enable any aggregated Ethernet interfaces on the router.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer to your question.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A new network requires multiple topology support. You decide to use IS-IS in this situation. Which three protocol topologies are supported in this scenario? (Choose three.)
- A. multicast
- B. anycast
- C. IPv6
- D. IPsec
- E. IPv4
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a routing protocol that is designed to move information efficiently within a computer network12. It supports multiple protocol topologies, including IPv4, IPv6, and multicast12. Therefore, options C, E, and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 26
What is the default keepalive time for BGP?
- A. 60 seconds
- B. 90 seconds
- C. 10 seconds
- D. 30 seconds
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The default keepalive time for BGP is 60 seconds1. The keepalive time is the interval at which BGP sends keepalive messages to maintain the connection with its peer1. If the keepalive message is not received within the hold time, the connection is considered lost1. By default, the hold time is three times the keepalive time, which is 180 seconds1.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which two events cause a router to advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)
- A. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created.
- B. When an interface has the OSPF passive option enabled.
- C. When an OSPF adjacency is established.
- D. When a static route to the 224.0.0.6 address is created.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A is correct because when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. An OSPF adjacency is a logical relationship between two routers that agree to exchange routing information using the OSPF protocol1. To establish an OSPF adjacency, the routers must be in the same area, have compatible parameters, and exchange hello packets1. Once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the routers will exchange database description (DBD) packets, which contain summaries of their link-state databases (LSDBs)1. The LSDBs include information about the connected networks and their costs2. Therefore, when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
D is correct because when a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. The 224.0.0.5 address is the multicast address for all OSPF routers3. A static route to this address can be used to send OSPF hello packets to all OSPF neighbors on a network segment3. This can be useful when the network segment does not support multicast or when the router does not have an IP address on the segment3. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, the router will send hello packets to this address and establish OSPF adjacencies with other routers on the segment3. As explained above, once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
NEW QUESTION # 28
You are troubleshooting a BGP routing issue between your network and a customer router and are reviewing the BGP routing policies. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
- A. Import policies are applied to routes in the RIB-Local table.
- B. Export policies are applied to routes in the RIB-ln table.
- C. Import policies are applied after the RIB-ln table.
- D. Export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
In BGP, routing policies are used to control the flow of routing information between BGP peers1.
Option C suggests that import policies are applied after the RIB-In table. This is correct because import policies in BGP are applied to routes that are received from a BGP peer, before they are installed in the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-In)1. The RIB-In is a database that stores all the routes that are received from all peers1.
Option D suggests that export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table. This is correct because export policies in BGP are applied to routes that are being advertised to a BGP peer, after they have been selected from the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-Local)1. The RIB-Local is a database that stores all the routes that the local router is using1.
Therefore, options C and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)
- A. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.
- B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
- C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
- D. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A is correct because RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch. An alternate port is a backup port for a root port, which means it receives better BPDUs from another bridge than the current root port1. However, an alternate port does not forward any traffic, as it is in a discarding state2. It only listens to BPDUs and waits for the root port to fail. If the root port fails, the alternate port can immediately transition to a forwarding state and become the new root port1.
C is correct because RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge. An alternate port is selected based on the same criteria as the root port, which are the lowest bridge ID, the lowest path cost, the lowest sender port ID, and the lowest receiver port ID3. However, an alternate port receives a higher cost BPDU than the root port, otherwise it would be the root port itself1. Therefore, an alternate port provides an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge than the root port.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which three protocols support BFD? (Choose three.)
- A. FTP
- B. OSPF
- C. BGP
- D. LACP
- E. RSTP
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
BFD is a protocol that can be used to quickly detect failures in the forwarding path between two adjacent routers or switches. BFD can be integrated with various routing protocols and link aggregation protocols to provide faster convergence and fault recovery.
According to the Juniper Networks documentation, the following protocols support BFD on Junos OS devices1:
BGP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between BGP peers and trigger a session reset if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both internal and external BGP sessions, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families2.
OSPF: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between OSPF neighbors and trigger a state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 protocols, as well as for point-to-point and broadcast network types3.
LACP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between LACP members and trigger a link state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both active and passive LACP modes, as well as for static and dynamic LAGs4.
Other protocols that support BFD on Junos OS devices are:
IS-IS: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between IS-IS neighbors and trigger a state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both level 1 and level 2 IS-IS adjacencies, as well as for point-to-point and broadcast network types.
RIP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between RIP neighbors and trigger a route update if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both RIP version 1 and version 2 protocols, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families.
VRRP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between VRRP routers and trigger a priority change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both VRRP version 2 and version 3 protocols, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families.
The protocols that do not support BFD on Junos OS devices are:
RSTP: RSTP is a spanning tree protocol that provides loop prevention and rapid convergence in layer 2 networks. RSTP does not use BFD to detect link failures, but relies on its own hello mechanism that sends BPDU packets every 2 seconds by default.
FTP: FTP is an application layer protocol that is used to transfer files between hosts over a TCP connection. FTP does not use BFD to detect connection failures, but relies on TCP's own retransmission and timeout mechanisms.
References:
1: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection] 2: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for BGP] 3: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for OSPF] 4: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for Link Aggregation Control Protocol] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for IS-IS] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for RIP] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for VRRP] : [Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol] : [Understanding FTP]
NEW QUESTION # 31
What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)
- A. to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone
- B. to reduce LSA flooding across the network
- C. to increase the size of the LSDB
- D. to reduce the convergence time
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Option A is correct. Creating multiple areas in OSPF can help to reduce the convergence time . This is because changes in one area do not affect other areas, so fewer routers need to run the SPF algorithm in response to a change.
Option D is correct. Creating multiple areas in OSPF can help to reduce Link State Advertisement (LSA) flooding across the network. This is because LSAs are not flooded out of their area of origin.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Exhibit.
You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
- B. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router's loopback interface for the next hop.
- C. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
- D. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation
The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. This can be resolved by redistributing the connected subnets into OSPF1.
Option C suggests to configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets. This is correct because redistribution allows routes from one routing protocol to be communicated to another, and in this case, it allows the connected subnets to be advertised through OSPF1.
Option D suggests enabling the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets. This is also correct because in OSPF, a passive interface is an interface that belongs to the OSPF router, but does not send OSPF Hello packets1. It's typically used on an interface that you don't want to use for OSPF adjacencies, but you still want to advertise its IP address1. Therefore, enabling passive interface can help in advertising the Dallas and Denver subnets.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?
- A. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.
- B. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
- C. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
- D. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes12. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement1. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route1.
Therefore, option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are not correct because:
Aggregate routes can be used with both static routing and dynamic routing protocols1.
Aggregate routes are not automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table. They need to be manually configured1.
Aggregate routes are not always preferred over more specific routes. The route selection process in Junos OS considers several factors, including route preference and metric, before determining the active route1.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)
- A. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.
- B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
- C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
- D. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A is correct because RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch. An alternate port is a backup port for a root port, which means it receives better BPDUs from another bridge than the current root port1. However, an alternate port does not forward any traffic, as it is in a discarding state2. It only listens to BPDUs and waits for the root port to fail. If the root port fails, the alternate port can immediately transition to a forwarding state and become the new root port1.
C is correct because RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge. An alternate port is selected based on the same criteria as the root port, which are the lowest bridge ID, the lowest path cost, the lowest sender port ID, and the lowest receiver port ID3. However, an alternate port receives a higher cost BPDU than the root port, otherwise it would be the root port itself1. Therefore, an alternate port provides an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge than the root port.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Exhibit
What does the * indicate in the output shown in the exhibit?
- A. The interface is active.
- B. The interface is down.
- C. The switch ports have a router attached.
- D. All interfaces have elected a root bridge.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit shows the output of the command show vlans brief, which displays brief information about VLANs and their associated interfaces1.
The output has four columns: Routing instance, VLAN name, Interfaces, and Tagging.
The * symbol indicates that the interface is active, meaning that it is up and forwarding traffic1. This can be verified by the command , which displays the status of the interfaces2.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which two statements correctly describe RSTP port roles? (Choose two.)
- A. The designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device.
- B. The root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge.
- C. The alternate port is a standby port for an edge port.
- D. The backup port is used as a backup for the root port.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), there are several port roles that determine the behavior of the port in the spanning tree1.
Option A suggests that the designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device. This is correct because the designated port is the port on a network segment that has the best path to the root bridge1. It's responsible for forwarding frames towards the root bridge and sending configuration messages into its segment1.
Option D suggests that the root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge. This is also correct because the root port is always the link directly connected to the root bridge, or the shortest path to the root bridge1. It's used to forward traffic towards the root bridge1.
Therefore, options A and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?
- A. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
- B. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.
- C. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
- D. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is correct. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches12. On EX2200, EX3200, EX3300, EX4200, and EX6200 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control for broadcast and unknown unicast traffic on all switch interfaces2. On EX4300 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control on all Layer 2 switch interfaces1.
Option B is incorrect. The storm control feature does not require a special license on EX Series switches34.
Option C is incorrect. There's no information available that suggests the storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
Option D is incorrect. The storm control configuration applies to traffic at the ingress of an interface5, not just between the forwarding and control plane.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
- B. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
- C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link
- D. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Redundant Trunk Groups (RTGs) on EX Series switches provide a simple solution for network recovery when a trunk port on a switch goes down1. They are configured on the access switch and contain two links: a primary or active link, and a secondary link1. Therefore, option B is correct because if the active link fails, the secondary link automatically starts forwarding data traffic without waiting for normal spanning-tree protocol convergence1.
Option D is also correct. In a typical enterprise network composed of distribution and access layers, RTGs are used where one Access switch is connected to two different uplink switches2. This implies that RTGs must be connected to the same aggregation switch2.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which statement is correct about the IS-IS ISO NET address?
- A. An ISO NET address must be unique for each device in the network.
- B. You can only define a single ISO NET address per device.
- C. An ISO NET address defined with a system ID of 0000.0000.0000 must be selected as the DIS.
- D. The Area ID must match on all devices within a L2 area.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An ISO NET address is a type of network address used by the IS-IS routing protocol. It identifies a point of connection to the network, such as a router interface, and is also called a Network Service Access Point (NSAP)1.
An ISO NET address consists of three parts: an area ID, a system ID, and a selector2. The area ID identifies the IS-IS area to which the device belongs. The system ID uniquely identifies the device within the area. The selector identifies a specific service or function on the device, such as routing or management2.
An ISO NET address must be unique for each device in the network, because it is used by IS-IS to establish adjacencies, exchange routing information, and compute shortest paths2. If two devices have the same ISO NET address, they will not be able to communicate with each other or with other devices in the network. Therefore, it is important to assign different ISO NET addresses to each device in the network.
NEW QUESTION # 40
......
JN0-351 Dumps PDF - 100% Passing Guarantee: https://www.exams4collection.com/JN0-351-latest-braindumps.html
Latest JN0-351 PDF Dumps & Real Tests Free Updated Today: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1rwI3rDXo9q_g8kxgWARucwwHWyu_4dW8
