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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is an internationally recognized certification that is specifically designed for professionals who are involved in the management of IT risks and information systems. CRISC exam is designed to test the knowledge and expertise of individuals in various areas, including risk management, information security, and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is highly sought after by employers and organizations around the world, as it demonstrates a high level of competence and expertise in these critical areas.
The benefit in Obtaining the CRISC Exam Certification
- CRISC can likewise offer a profession jump as an advancement by separating candidates from different people who are not CRISC confirmed
- Allows candidate capability in IS audit, control and security profession.
- Candidates with this certification for the best part they earn 47.54% higher pay.
- A internationally accepted as the characteristic of excellence for the IS audit professional.
- CRISC supports candidate knowledge and experience in the assigned region and shows their capacity for responding to any challenge.
NEW QUESTION # 682
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
- A. Management review and sign-off on system documentation
- B. Review of internal audit and third-party reports
- C. Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
- D. First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 683
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?
- A. Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations
- B. Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud
- C. Clear accountability for risk management processes
- D. An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 684
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?
- A. Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level
- B. Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management
- C. Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period
- D. Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 685
Which of the following is the MOST effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication?
- A. Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies
- B. A false sense of confidence at the top on the degree of actual exposure related to IT and lack of a well- understood direction for risk management from the top down
- C. The perception that the enterprise is trying to cover up known risk from stakeholders
- D. Existence of a blame culture
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Blame culture should be avoided. It is the most effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication. In a blame culture, business units tend to point the finger at IT when projects are not delivered on time or do not meet expectations. In doing so, they fail to realize how the business unit's involvement up front affects project success. In extreme cases, the business unit may assign blame for a failure to meet the expectations that the unit never clearly communicated. Executive leadership must identify and quickly control a blame culture if collaboration is to be fostered throughout the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
B: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
D: Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies is an inhibitor of effective communication, but is not a prominent as existence of blame culture.
NEW QUESTION # 686
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
- A. The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
- B. The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
- C. The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.
- D. The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 687
The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:
- A. effectiveness of risk response options
- B. importance of IT risk within the enterprise
- C. capability to implement the response
- D. alignment of response to industry standards
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 688
You are the project manager of the QPS project. You and your project team have identified a pure risk. You along with the key stakeholders, decided to remove the pure risk from the project by changing the project plan altogether. What is a pure risk?
- A. It is a risk event that only has a negative side and not any positive result.
- B. is incorrect. This in not valid definition of pure risk.
- C. It is a risk event that is created by the application of risk response.
- D. It is a risk event that cannot be avoided because of the order of the work.
- E. It is a risk event that is generated due to errors or omission in the project work.
- F. is incorrect. The risk event created by the application of risk response is called
secondary risk. - G. Explanation:
A pure risk has only a negative effect on the project. Pure risks are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. It is a class of risk
in which loss is the only probable result and there is no positive result.
Pure risk is associated to the events that are outside the risk-taker's control.
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. A risk event that is generated due to errors or omission in the project work
is not necessarily pure risk.
NEW QUESTION # 689
Which of the following process ensures that extracted data are ready for analysis?
- A. Data validation
- B. Data analysis
- C. Data access
- D. Data gathering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data validation ensures that extracted data are ready for analysis. One objective is to perform data quality tests to ensure data are valid complete and free of errors. This may also involve making data from different sources suitable for comparative analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Analysis of data involves simple set of steps or complex combination of commands and other functionality. Data analysis is designed in such a way to achieve the stated objectives from the project plan. Although this may be applicable to any monitoring activity, it would be beneficial to consider transferability and scalability. This may include robust documentation, use of software development standards and naming conventions.
C: Data gathering is the process of collecting data on risk to be monitored, prepare a detailed plan and define the project's scope. In the case of a monitoring project, this step should involve process owners, data owners, system custodians and other process stakeholders.
D: In the data access process, management identifies which data are available and how they can be acquired in a format that can be used for analysis. There are two options for data extraction:
Extracting data directly from the source systems after system owner approval
Receiving data extracts from the system custodian (IT) after system owner approval
NEW QUESTION # 690
Which of the following are risk components of the COSO ERM framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Control activities
- B. Risk response
- C. Internal environment
- D. Business continuity
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The risk components defined by the COSO ERM are internal environment, objective settings, event identification, risk assessment, risk response, control objectives, information and communication, and monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
C: Business continuity is not considered as risk component within the ERM framework.
NEW QUESTION # 691
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?
- A. Variances between organizational risk appetites
- B. Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios
- C. Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems
- D. Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 692
Which of the following are true for quantitative analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Determines risk factors in terms of high/medium/low.
- B. Allows discovery of which phenomena are likely to be genuine and which are merely chance occurrences
- C. Produces statistically reliable results
- D. Allows data to be classified and counted
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
As quantitative analysis is data driven, it:
* Allows data classification and counting.
* Allows statistical models to be constructed, which help in explaining what is being observed.
* Generalizes findings for a larger population and direct comparisons between two different sets of data or observations.
* Produces statistically reliable results.
* Allows discovery of phenomena which are likely to be genuine and merely occurs by chance.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk factors are expressed in terms of high/medium/low in qualitative analysis, and not in quantitative analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 693
You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project.
This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project.
You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response?
- A. Project management plan
- B. Risk log
- C. Risk management plan
- D. Risk register
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
The Identified risks and potential responses are documented in the risk register. A risk register is an inventory of risks and exposure associated with those risks. Risks are commonly found in project management practices, and provide information to identify, analyze, and manage risks. Typically a risk register contains:
* A description of the risk
* The impact should this event actually occur
* The probability of its occurrence
* Risk Score (the multiplication of Probability and Impact)
* A summary of the planned response should the event occur
* A summary of the mitigation (the actions taken in advance to reduce the probability and/or impact of the event)
* Ranking of risks by Risk Score so as to highlight the highest priority risks to all involved.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is not a valid choice for this question
C: The project management plan is the parent of the risk management plan, but the best choice is the risk register.
D: The risk management plan is an input to the risk response planning, but it is not the best choice for this question
NEW QUESTION # 694
You are working with a vendor on your project. A stakeholder has requested a change for the project, which will add value to the project deliverables. The vendor that you're working with on the project will be affected by the change. What system can help you introduce and execute the stakeholder change request with the vendor?
- A. Schedule change control system
- B. Scope change control system
- C. Contract change control system
- D. Cost change control system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The contract change control system is part of the project's change control system. It addresses changes with the vendor that may affect the project contract. Change control system, a part of the configuration management system, is a collection of formal documented procedures that define how project deliverables and documentation will be controlled, changed, and approved.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The scope may change because of the stakeholder change request.
Vendor's relationship to the project, hence this choice is not the best answer.
C: The cost change control system manages changes to costs in the project.
D: There is no indication that the change could affect the project schedule.
NEW QUESTION # 695
A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?
- A. Single sign-on
- B. Multi-factor authentication
- C. Data encryption at rest
- D. Audit trail review
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 696
A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?
- A. Code review
- B. Penetration test
- C. Gap assessment
- D. Business impact analysis (BIA)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 697
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?
- A. Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization
- B. Quantitative analysis might not be possible
- C. Implementation costs might increase
- D. Inherent risk might not be considered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 698
Which of the following is the BEST method for discovering high-impact risk types?
- A. Quantitative risk analysis
- B. Failure modes and effects analysis
- C. Qualitative risk analysis
- D. Delphi technique
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Failure modes and effects analysis is used in discovering high-impact risk types.
FMEA:
Is one of the tools used within the Six Sigma methodology to design and implement a robust process
to:
- Identify failure modes
- Establish a risk priority so that corrective actions can be put in place to address and reduce the risk
- Helps in identifying and documenting where in the process the source of the failure impacts the (internal or external) customer
- Is used to determine failure modes and assess risk posed by the process and thus, to the enterprise as a whole' Incorrect Answers:
A, D: These two are the methods of analyzing risk, but not specifically for high-impact risk types. Hence is not the best answer.
B: Delphi is a technique to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a question: and their inputs are organized according to their contents. The collected responses are sent back to these experts for further input, addition, and comments. The final list of risks in the project is prepared after that. The participants in this technique are anonymous and therefore it helps prevent a person from unduly influencing the others in the group. The Delphi technique helps in reaching the consensus quickly.
NEW QUESTION # 699
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?
- A. Using a third-party monitoring provider
- B. Coordinating events with appropriate agencies
- C. Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs
- D. Analyzing server logs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 700
While considering entity-based risks, which dimension of the COSO ERM framework is being referred?
- A. Risk objectives
- B. Strategic objectives
- C. Organizational levels
- D. Risk components
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
The organizational levels of the COSO ERM framework describe the subsidiary, business unit, division, and entity-levels of aspects of risk solutions.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk components includes Internal Environment, Objectives settings, Event identification, Risk assessment, Risk response, Control activities, Information and communication, and monitoring.
C: Strategic objectives includes strategic, operational, reporting, and compliance risks; and not entity-based risks.
D: This is not a valid answer.
NEW QUESTION # 701
The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:
- A. residual risk.
- B. detected incidents.
- C. vulnerabilities.
- D. inherent risk.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 702
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