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Ultimate Guide to Prepare SK0-005 with Accurate PDF Questions
To earn the CompTIA Server+ certification, individuals must pass the SK0-005 exam, which consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions. SK0-005 exam is designed to test a candidate’s knowledge and skills in server technologies, including installation and configuration, maintenance, troubleshooting, and security. SK0-005 exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese, and candidates have 90 minutes to complete it.
NEW QUESTION # 152
A server administrator is configuring the IP address on a newly provisioned server in the testing environment. The network VLANs are configured as follows:
The administrator configures the IP address for the new server as follows:
IP address: 192.168.1.1/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
A ping sent to the default gateway is not successful. Which of the following IP address/default gateway combinations should the administrator have used for the new server?
- A. IP address: 192.168.10.24/24
Default gateway: 192.168.30.1 - B. IP address: 192.168.10.2/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1 - C. IP address: 192.168.10.3/24
Default gateway: 192.168.20.1 - D. IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IP should be on the same LAN. 192.168.10.1/24 is the Gateway IP address from the table.
The server cannot use that 10.1 but CAN use 10.2.
VLANs allow network administrators to automatically limit access to a specified group of users by dividing workstations into different isolated LAN segments. When users move their workstations, administrators don't need to reconfigure the network or change VLAN groups.
NEW QUESTION # 153
A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company's management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management's priorities? (Choose two.)
- A. Archive
- B. Open file
- C. Synthetic full
- D. Full
- E. Differential
- F. Incremental
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Explanation
The best backup methods to use to support the management's priorities are differential and incremental. A backup is a process of copying data from a source to a destination for the purpose of restoring it in case of data loss or corruption. There are different types of backup methods that vary in terms of speed, efficiency, and storage requirements. Differential and incremental backups are two types of partial backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the data from the source to the destination. A full backup provides the most complete and reliable restore option, but it also takes the longest time and requires the most storage space. A differential backup copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup provides a faster restore option than an incremental backup, but it also takes more time and requires more storage space than an incremental backup. An incremental backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup provides the fastest and most efficient backup option, but it also requires multiple backups to restore the data completely.
NEW QUESTION # 154
Several new components have been added to a mission-critical server, and corporate policy states all new components must meet server hardening requirements. Which of the following should be applied?
- A. Definition updates
- B. Application updates
- C. OS security updates
- D. Driver updates
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Driver updates should be applied to the new components that have been added to a mission-critical server, as part of the server hardening requirements. Drivers are software programs that enable the communication and functionality of hardware devices, such as network cards, storage controllers, or graphics cards. Updating drivers can improve the performance, compatibility, and stability of the new components with the server operating system and applications. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain
2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
NEW QUESTION # 155
An administrator is troubleshooting a RAID issue in a failed server. The server reported a drive failure, and then it crashed and would no longer boot. There are two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAIO 0 set tor the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data. Which of the following failure scenarios MOST likely occurred?
- A. A drive failed in the OS array.
- B. A drive failed and then recovered in the data array.
- C. A drive failed in both of the arrays.
- D. A drive failed in the data array.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
If a server has two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAID 0 set for the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data, then the most likely failure scenario that caused the server to crash and not boot is that a drive failed in the OS array. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. RAID 0 offers high performance but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 10 is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping with parity. RAID 10 offers high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 can tolerate up to one drive failure per mirrored pair without losing data or functionality.References:https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-0/
https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-10/
NEW QUESTION # 156
Which of me following is the BEST action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster?
- A. Failover all VMs.
- B. Fallback cluster services.
- C. Set the cluster to active-active.
- D. Disable the heartbeat network.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 157
A server administrator wants to check the open ports on a server. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to complete the task?
- A. nbtstat
- B. nslookup
- C. telnet
- D. netstat -a
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://linuxhint.com/netstat-a/
NEW QUESTION # 158
An administrator is only able to log on to a server with a local account. The server has been successfully joined to the domain and can ping other servers by IP address. Which of the following locally defined settings is MOST likely misconfigured?
- A. WINS
- B. TCP
- C. DHCP
- D. DNS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most likely misconfigured setting because DNS is the service that resolves hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. If the DNS server is incorrect or unreachable, the administrator will not be able to log on to the server with a domain account because the server will not be able to authenticate with the domain controller. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/dns-troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following server types would benefit MOST from the use of a load balancer?
- A. DNS server
- B. File server
- C. Web server
- D. DHCP server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.dnsstuff.com/what-is-server-load-balancing
NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following concepts refers to prioritizing a connection that had previously worked successfully?
- A. SCP
- B. MRU
- C. Link aggregation
- D. Round robin
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
MRU, or Most Recently Used, is a concept that refers to prioritizing a connection that had previously worked successfully. It is often used in load balancing algorithms to distribute the workload among multiple servers or paths. MRU assumes that the most recently used connection is the most likely to be available and efficient, and therefore assigns the next request to that connection. This can help reduce latency and improve performance12. The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to prioritizing a previous connection. Round robin is a concept that refers to distributing the workload equally among all available connections in a circular order12. SCP, or Secure Copy Protocol, is a concept that refers to transferring files securely between hosts using encryption3. Link aggregation is a concept that refers to combining multiple physical links into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and redundancy4.
NEW QUESTION # 161
A data center environment currently hosts more than 100 servers that include homegrown and commercial software. The management team has asked the server administrator to find a way to eliminate all company-owned data centers. Which of the following models will the administrator most likely choose to meet this need?
- A. Public
- B. SaaS
- C. Private
- D. Hybrid
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A public cloud model will most likely meet the need of eliminating all company-owned data centers. A public cloud is a type of cloud computing service that is provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. A public cloud offers scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness for hosting servers and applications, as the customers only pay for the resources they use and do not have to maintain their own infrastructure. A public cloud can also provide high availability, security, and performance for the servers and applications, as the vendor manages the underlying hardware and software. A public cloud can support various types of services, such as software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), or infrastructure as a service (IaaS). References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Administration, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast server roles and requirements for each.
NEW QUESTION # 162
A syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port
514 against the syslog server. However, the syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the syslog server is not responding?
- A. Telnet does not work on UDP.
- B. The syslog server is down.
- C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514
- D. The log is full on the syslog server.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 163
A backup application is copying only changed files each time it runs. During a restore, however, only a single file is used. Which of the following backup methods does this describe?
- A. Synthetic full
- B. Open file
- C. Full differential
- D. Full incremental
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the best description of a synthetic full backup method because it creates a full backup by combining previous incremental backups with the latest backup. An incremental backup copies only the files that have changed since the last backup, while a full backup copies all the files. A synthetic full backup reduces the storage space and network bandwidth required for backups, while also simplifying the restore process by using a single file. Reference: https://www.veritas.com/support/en_US/doc/129705091-129705095-0/br731_wxrt-tot_v131910378-129705095
NEW QUESTION # 164
A server administrator needs to replace a 4U rack-mounted device. Which of the following is the BEST way to install the device to ensure proper safety measures?
- A. Use a rolling cart.
- B. Lift the device with the help of another administrator.
- C. Use a server lift. Most Voted
- D. Lift with the arms while bending the knees.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A piece of console furniture called a "crash cart" refers to a mobile server room cart equipped with a secured laptop that is used to provide a direct connection to malfunctioning servers and computers for restoration of crashes. - Not the answer.
4U would require at least 4 admin so not the answer....
Server lifts are used to raise equipment to installation level in a frame (cabinet or rack) or to remove equipment from a frame. Server lifts should only be used on level floors strong enough to support lift and load... Using a lift may be slower than maneuvering by hand; but if worker or equipment safety (usually because of weight) is a factor; using a lift is required.
https://www.idmworks.com/industry-analysis/data-center-server-lift/
NEW QUESTION # 165
An administrator notices nigh traffic on a certain subnet and would like to identify the source of the traffic. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize?
- A. Sniffer
- B. Port scanner
- C. Nbtstat
- D. Anti-malware
Answer: A
Explanation:
A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic on a subnet or a network interface. It can help identify the source, destination, protocol, and content of the traffic and detect any anomalies or issues on the network. Verified Reference: [Sniffer], [Network traffic]
NEW QUESTION # 166
A technician recently applied a critical OS patch to a working sever. After rebooting, the technician notices the server Is unable to connect to a nearby database server. The technician validates a connection can be made to the database from another host. Which of the following is the best NEXT step to restore connectivity?
- A. Change the service account permissions.
- B. Check the host firewall I rule.
- C. Enable HIDS.
- D. Roll back the applied patch.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A host firewall is a software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a server based on predefined rules and filters. It can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or addresses that are used for communication with other servers or devices. If a server is unable to connect to another server after applying a patch, it is possible that the patch changed or added a firewall rule that prevents the connection. The administrator should check the host firewall rule and modify it if necessary to restore connectivity. Verified References: [Host firewall], [Network connection]
NEW QUESTION # 167
A Linux administrator created a script that will run at startup. After successfully writing the script, the administrator received me following output when trying to execute the script:
Bash ./startup,sh:Permission denied
Which of the following commands would BEST resolve the error message?
- A. Chmod 444 startup.sh
- B. Chmod 466 startUp,sh
- C. Chmod +w startup.sh
- D. Chmod+x startup.sh
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the command that would best resolve the error message "Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied" when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/437958/how-to-use-the-chmod-command-on-linux
NEW QUESTION # 168
A server in a remote datacenter is no longer responsive. Which of the following is the BEST solution to investigate this failure?
- A. Out-of-band management
- B. Remote desktop
- C. A Secure Shell connection
- D. Access via a crash cart
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.lantronix.com/wp-content/uploads/pdf/Data_Center_Mgmt_WP.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 169
An administrator is troubleshooting a RAID issue in a failed server. The server reported a drive failure, and then it crashed and would no longer boot. There are two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAIO 0 set tor the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data. Which of the following failure scenarios MOST likely occurred?
- A. A drive failed in the OS array.
- B. A drive failed and then recovered in the data array.
- C. A drive failed in both of the arrays.
- D. A drive failed in the data array.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: If a server has two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAID 0 set for the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data, then the most likely failure scenario that caused the server to crash and not boot is that a drive failed in the OS array. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. RAID 0 offers high performance but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 10 is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping with parity. RAID 10 offers high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 can tolerate up to one drive failure per mirrored pair without losing data or functionality. References:
https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-0/ https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-10/
NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following ensures a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails?
- A. Most recently used
- B. Heartbeat
- C. Link aggregation
- D. Fault tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of a failure of one or more of its components. Fault tolerance can ensure a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails.
Fault tolerance can be achieved by using redundant components, such as network cards, cables,switches, routers, etc., that can take over the function of the failed component without interrupting the service.References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following tools will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events?
- A. DLP
- B. SIEM
- C. HIPS
- D. Syslog
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SIEM is the tool that will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events. SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a software solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates log data from various sources, such as servers, firewalls, routers, antivirus software, etc. SIEM can detect anomalies, patterns, trends, and threats in the log data and generate alerts or reports for security monitoring and incident response. SIEM can also provide historical analysis and compliance reporting for audit purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 172
An administrator restores several database files without error while participating in a mock disaster recovery exercise. Later, the administrator reports that the restored databases are corrupt and cannot be used. Which of the following would best describe what caused this issue?
- A. The databases were mirrored
- B. The database files were locked during the restoration process.
- C. The databases were asynchronously replicated
- D. The databases were not backed up to be application consistent.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12
What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2
Application-Consistent Backups3
NEW QUESTION # 173
A security analyst suspects a remote server is running vulnerable network applications. The analyst does not have administrative credentials for the server. Which of the following would MOST likely help the analyst determine if the applications are running?
- A. A port scanner
- B. A sniffer
- C. User account control
- D. Anti-malware
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can run nmap to determine what ports are open and what services are running on them and could even run a -sV to determine version.
NEW QUESTION # 174
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