[Jan-2026] The Best A+ 220-1101 Professional Exam Questions
Try 100% Updated 220-1101 Exam Questions [2026]
To prepare for the CompTIA 220-1101 exam, candidates can enroll in training courses, review study materials, and practice with sample test questions. 220-1101 exam covers a variety of topics, including computer hardware, operating systems, networking technologies, mobile devices, and security. Candidates must have a solid understanding of these topics to pass the exam and earn the CompTIA A+ certification.
CompTIA 220-1101 exam is a critical step in obtaining the CompTIA A+ certification. 220-1101 exam is designed to evaluate the foundational knowledge and skills required to support operating systems, hardware, software, and networks. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification is globally recognized, and it is an excellent investment for individuals who are looking to start a career in the IT industry or advance their careers in technical support roles.
NEW QUESTION # 226
Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.
She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.
Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.
She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.
Wireless Name: HomeWiFi
Shared Key: CompTIA
Router Password: Secure$1
Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.
Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100
Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54
Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101
Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11
INSTRUCTIONS
Configure Laura's wireless network using the network adapter window.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button.
- A. Seetheexplanationbelow
Answer: A
Explanation:
solution as
NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following protocols can be used to securely access a remote network to troubleshoot various devices?
- A. FTP
- B. SSH
- C. TFTP
- D. RDP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used to securely access and manage devices over a network. It provides a secure channel over an unsecured network in a client-server architecture, enabling technicians to perform troubleshooting and management tasks remotely with encryption to ensure the security of the data transmitted. FTP and TFTP are used for file transfers and do not inherently provide the same level of security or direct device management capabilities. RDP is used for remote desktop connections but is not as universally applicable for various devices as SSH.
NEW QUESTION # 228
The IT department issued a corporate smartphone to a user, but the user returned the device stating it had connectivity Issues. The user claimed the device functioned on WI-FI but all connectivity to cloud services was lost as soon as the device was taken off site. Which of the following issues was MOST likely affecting the device?
- A. S/MIME certificates were corrupted and needed to be reloaded.
- B. MDM was never properly set up on the device.
- C. Bluetooth on the device was disabled by mistake.
- D. The device never had a proper SIM card installed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A SIM card is needed for the device to use cellular network services, so without it, the device will be unable to connect to the cloud services when taken off site. MDM (Mobile Device Management) can be used to manage settings and access on a device, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services. S
/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) certificates are used to encrypt and digitally sign emails, and are not related to device connectivity. Bluetooth can be used to connect devices together, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services.
NEW QUESTION # 229
A user is experiencing a log-on issue when attempting to use a network-authenticated application in a corporate environment The technician successfully resolves the issue by resetting the password The user confirms that everything is working as expected Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
- A. Refer to the vendor's instructions
- B. Establish a plan of action
- C. Implement preventative measures
- D. Document the findings
Answer: D
Explanation:
After resolving an issue, it's crucial for a technician to document the findings, actions taken, and the outcome.
This documentation serves several purposes: it provides a record of the problem and the solution for future reference, which can be helpful if the issue recurs or if similar problems arise with other users. It also ensures that any follow-up actions, if necessary, are well-informed by the history of the issue. Documenting the resolution process contributes to knowledge sharing among the support team and can improve the efficiency of future troubleshooting efforts.References: Hardware & Network Troubleshooting 1101.docx,
"Documentation" section.
NEW QUESTION # 230
A user's desktop computer is connected via an Ethernet cable and often drops the connection. When the computer does connect, the network speeds are normal. No other network users on the same floor are reporting issues. The administrator verified that all authentication systems are working as intended and the Ethernet cable was replaced. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- A. Slow network speeds
- B. Port flapping
- C. Limited connectivity
- D. 802.1X configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port flapping, also known as link flapping, is a network issue that causes a switch port's state to fluctuate between up and down within short periods of time. This instability affects network connectivity and performance. Port flapping can be caused by various factors, such as faulty cables, hardware issues, configuration issues, or other network issues12. In this scenario, the user's desktop computer is connected via an Ethernet cable and often drops the connection, while no other network users on the same floor are reporting issues. The administrator verified that all authentication systems are working as intended and the Ethernet cable was replaced. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue is port flapping on the switch port that connects to the user's computer.
References
1: Port flapping - Definition, common causes, and troubleshoot ...
2: Solved: Port Flapping Issue - Cisco Community
NEW QUESTION # 231
Which of the following does a DHCP reservation MOST likely apply to?
- A. Printer
- B. Workstation
- C. Smart TV
- D. Mobile device
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A DHCP reservation is a feature that allows a DHCP server to assign a specific IP address to a specific device on a network, based on its MAC address. This ensures that the device always receives the same IP address, even if it is disconnected or rebooted. A DHCP reservation is most likely applied to a printer, as it can make it easier for users to find and connect to the printer on the network, without having to change the printer settings or deal with IP address conflicts. Reference:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 84)
NEW QUESTION # 232
A technician is troubleshooting a workgroup printer that has stopped printing after several days of heavy use.
The technician runs the diagnostic tool in the printer's administrator menu. Which of the following issues is the technician most likely to encounter?
- A. Improperly installed drivers
- B. Network connectivity issues
- C. Insufficient space in the printer
- D. Corrupt job in print spooler
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely issue that the technician will encounter is A. Corrupt job in print spooler.
A corrupt job in the print spooler is a common problem that can cause a printer to stop printing or print slowly. The print spooler is a service that manages the print queue, which is a list of documents that are waiting to be printed. Sometimes, a document in the print queue can become corrupted or incompatible with the printer, and prevent other documents from being printed. This can happen due to various reasons, such as power outage, network interruption, driver mismatch, virus infection, etc12.
To troubleshoot and resolve this issue, the technician can use the diagnostic tool in the printer's administrator menu, which is a feature that allows the technician to access and configure various settings and options of the printer. The diagnostic tool can help the technician identify and delete the corrupt job in the print spooler, and restart the print service. The technician can also use the diagnostic tool to check the printer's status, error messages, firmware updates, network settings, and other information that can help with the troubleshooting process34.
The other options are less likely to be encountered by the technician, as they are not related to the printer's heavy use or the diagnostic tool. Insufficient space in the printer is an issue that can occur when the printer's memory or storage is full, and it can cause the printer to print slowly or incompletely. However, this issue can be easily resolved by clearing the printer's memory or storage, or adding more memory or storage to the printer12. Network connectivity issues are problems that can affect the communication between the printer and the network, and they can cause the printer to be offline or unreachable. However, these issues can be resolved by checking and fixing the physical or wireless connection, the network configuration, the firewall settings, and the printer's IP address12. Improperly installed drivers are issues that can affect the compatibility and functionality of the printer, and they can cause the printer to print incorrectly or not at all.
However, these issues can be resolved by updating, reinstalling, or rolling back the printer's drivers, or by using the correct drivers for the printer's model and operating system12.
NEW QUESTION # 233
A VM was set up to deny access to the host computer and any network resources. Which of the following describes this scenario?
- A. Hypervisor
- B. Legacy application
- C. Cross-platform virtualization
- D. Sandbox
Answer: D
Explanation:
A sandbox is an isolated environment created for testing or running code without affecting the host system or other network resources. In this scenario, the virtual machine (VM) is set up to deny access to the host computer and any network resources, effectively creating a contained and secure space where actions within the VM do not impact the rest of the system or network. This is a key feature of sandbox environments used for testing and security purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 234
A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?
- A. Thunderbolt
- B. M.2
- C. eSATA
- D. SCSI
Answer: B
Explanation:
M.2 is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that enables direct attachment to the motherboard without the need for cables. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface that supports data transfer, video output, and charging.
eSATA is an external interface for connecting SATA devices. SCSI is an older interface standard for connecting hard drives, printers, and other peripherals.
Installing a hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables is usually done with an M.2 slot.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following protocols operates without a port number assignment?
- A. DHCP
- B. SNMP
- C. TCP
- D. SSH
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 236
Which of the following services allows a remote user to access network resources?
- A. WLAN
- B. SAN
- C. DHCP
- D. VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. VPN.
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a service that allows a remote user to access network resources securely over the internet. A VPN creates an encrypted tunnel between the user's device and the VPN server, which acts as a gateway to the network. The user can then access the network resources as if they were directly connected to the network, without exposing their traffic to eavesdropping, interception, or censorship.
A VPN can provide remote users with access to various services on a company network, such as file and print services, client/server applications, and remote network administration1. A VPN can also protect the user's privacy and identity online by masking their IP address and location.
References:
*Remote Access to a Network - NETWORK ENCYCLOPEDIA, section "Remote access typically gives remote users access to the following services on a company network".
NEW QUESTION # 237
A technician is running a 279ft (85m) network cable between buildings that will share conduit with a large power cable. Which of the following is the most appropriate cable for the technician to use for this project?
- A. Cat 5e
- B. Coaxial
- C. Cat 6
- D. Fiber
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this scenario, running a network cable over a long distance (279ft or 85m) and sharing conduit with a large power cable requires careful consideration of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and the physical distance limitations of the cable type. Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference and can support much longer distances than copper-based cables like Cat 5e or Cat 6 without signal degradation. This makes fiber optic the most appropriate choice for this project.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.1: Explain basic cable types and their connectors, features, and purposes.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 2.2: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 238
A natural disaster occurred, and the storage system for the development team is unrecoverable. The technician is preparing replacement storage arrays that include a hypervisor with the capacity to support several virtual machines. Two separate bays are available, and both should be utilized.
Requirements for the primary array include the following:
* No need to be scalable
* Very fast on reads
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Ability to function with only one drive
* Easily recoverable data
* High redundancy
* Minimum number of drives
Requirements for the secondary array include the following:
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Total space of 600G3
* Best write performance
* Minimum number of drives
Instructions:
Drag and Drop the appropriate Hard Drives. Then Open each array to complete the configuration.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Primary Array:
Drag and drop two 120 GB SSD hard drives to the primary array bay.
Open the primary array and select RAID 1 as the RAID level. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance of one drive, ability to function with only one drive, easily recoverable data, high redundancy, and very fast on reads. It also does not need to be scalable and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 1.
Confirm the configuration and close the primary array.
Secondary Array:
Drag and drop two 300 GB SSD hard drives to the secondary array bay.
Open the secondary array and select RAID 0 as the RAID level. RAID 0 provides the best write performance and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 0. It also provides a total space of
600 GB (300 GB x 2), which meets the requirement.
Confirm the configuration and close the secondary array.
You have completed the configuration of the storage arrays.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A technician is troubleshooting a PC that has been experiencing random system crashes. The technician has already checked the hard drive and the RAM, and both were in good working order. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to troubleshoot the system crashes?
- A. Replace the PSU
- B. Disable the USB ports
- C. Test the fan speed.
- D. Decrease the RAM timings.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A PSU (power supply unit) is a component that converts the AC power from the wall outlet into DC power that the PC components can use. A faulty or failing PSU can cause random system crashes, as well as other problems such as noise, overheating, or no power at all. A PSU can fail due to various reasons, such as age, dust, power surges, or poor quality.
To troubleshoot a PSU, the technician can use a multimeter to measure the voltage output of the PSU connectors. The voltage should be within the acceptable range of the specifications. For example, the 12V rail should be between 11.4V and 12.6V. If the voltage is too low or too high, the PSU is likely defective and needs to be replaced.
Alternatively, the technician can try swapping the PSU with a known good one and see if the system crashes persist. If the system works fine with a different PSU, then the original PSU is the problem and should be replaced.
The other options are not likely to fix the random system crashes. Testing the fan speed may help to diagnose overheating issues, but it is not related to the PSU. Disabling the USB ports may help to eliminate potential conflicts with USB devices, but it is not related to the PSU. Decreasing the RAM timings may help to improve performance and stability, but it is not related to the PSU.
References:
* Fix Random PC Crashes: 10 Steps to Identify and Fix Issues
* Why Does Windows Crash? The 9 Most Common Reasons
NEW QUESTION # 240
A technician needs to update a web server's IPv4 address in a DNS server. Which of the following records should the technician update?
- A. MX
- B. A
- C. AAAA
- D. CNAME
Answer: B
Explanation:
A: Used for IPv6. Incorrect.
B: Relates to email servers. Incorrect.
C: Provides aliases, not IP mappings. Incorrect.
D: Maps hostnames to IPv4 addresses. Correct.
Explanation:
Step by Step Detailed Comprehensive Explanation with All CompTIA Reference:
Analysis of the Problem:
IPv4 records are associated with "A" records in DNS servers.
Option Evaluation:
NEW QUESTION # 241
A help desk technician needs to work on a high-volume printer. Users have reported occasional paper jams and smudges appearing on printed documents. Which of the following steps should the technician do next to address these issues?
- A. Replace the fuser.
- B. Check and clean the rollers.
- C. Perform a full factory reset.
- D. Change all the ink or toner cartridges.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Paper jams and smudging in high-volume printers are often caused by dirty or worn rollers. Rollers are responsible for feeding the paper through the printer. Over time, they accumulate dust, toner residue, or wear out, resulting in misfeeds or jams. Cleaning or replacing them typically resolves this issue.
* Option A (Factory reset): A full reset does not directly address mechanical issues like dirty rollers or smudging. It's a last resort and more relevant to configuration or software-related issues.
* Option C (Change toner cartridges): While toner quality can affect print quality, it won't usually cause jams or widespread smudging unless the cartridge is leaking - which is less likely across multiple users.
* Option D (Replace the fuser): A damaged fuser could cause smudging, but this is typically after extensive use and is not the first thing to check. Fuser issues also usually present more persistent, uniform smudges.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
NEW QUESTION # 242
Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains?
- A. Router
- B. Switch
- C. Hub
- D. Wireless access point
Answer: A
Explanation:
A router (option C) is a network device that is used to separate broadcast domains. A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and use routing tables to determine the best path for forwarding packets between different networks.
By separating broadcast domains, routers can help to reduce network congestion and improve performance. When a router receives a broadcast packet on one of its interfaces, it does not forward the packet to any other interfaces. This means that only devices within the same broadcast domain as the sender will receive the broadcast packet.
NEW QUESTION # 243
An application developer formats and reconfigures a development PC after every application test is complete. Which of the following is the best way to improve the efficiency of this process?
- A. Installing an SSD
- B. Implementing a sandbox
- C. Enabling hardware acceleration
- D. Disabling hyperthreading
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to improve the efficiency of the process of formatting and reconfiguring a development PC after every application test is complete is to implement a sandbox. A sandbox is a virtual environment that isolates the application from the rest of the system, allowing the developer to test the application without affecting the main operating system, files, or settings. A sandbox can also be easily reset, deleted, or duplicated, saving the time and effort of formatting and reconfiguring the PC. A sandbox can also provide security benefits, such as preventing malware or bugs from spreading to the system or the network.
NEW QUESTION # 244
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