[Jun 28, 2026] Fully Updated Free Actual CompTIA 220-1101 Exam Questions [Q73-Q95]

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[Jun 28, 2026] Fully Updated Free Actual CompTIA 220-1101 Exam Questions

Free 220-1101 Questions for CompTIA 220-1101 Exam [Jun-2026]


CompTIA 220-1101 exam is divided into different sections that cover various topics, including mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and troubleshooting. 220-1101 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions that need to be completed within 90 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates need to achieve a score of at least 675 out of 900. 220-1101 exam is available in multiple languages, including English, Japanese, German, and Spanish, among others. Passing 220-1101 exam demonstrates that the candidate has a solid foundation in computer technology and is ready to pursue a career in the IT industry.


CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 is a 90-minute exam that consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions. The performance-based questions require the candidate to demonstrate their ability to perform specific tasks related to hardware, software, and networking. 220-1101 exam is computer-based and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center.

 

NEW QUESTION # 73
A server administrator is building a new application server. Which of the following, RAID levels provides MAXIMUM performance and redundancy?

  • A. RAID 10
  • B. RAID 1
  • C. RAID 0
  • D. RAID 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0, which provides both performance and redundancy. RAID
1 mirrors data across two or more disks, while RAID 0 stripes data across two or more disks. RAID 10 combines these two methods to create a mirrored stripe set, which can tolerate multiple disk failures as long as they are not in the same mirror. RAID 10 requires at least four disks and offers better performance than RAID 5, which uses parity to provide redundancy. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-raid-0-
1-5-6-10


NEW QUESTION # 74
A technician receives a S.M.A.R.T. error on a PC. When the technician presses the Esc key, the PC continues to turn on without any further issues. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Change the NIC.
  • B. Close the ticket.
  • C. Update the PC's BIOS.
  • D. Replace the HDD.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology):
S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system integrated into modern HDDs and SSDs that detects and reports on various indicators of drive health and reliability.
A S.M.A.R.T. error indicates that the drive is showing signs of impending failure, even if the PC continues to boot and work normally for the time being.
Next Steps:
The appropriate action is to replace the hard drive (HDD) because a S.M.A.R.T. error is an early warning of possible hardware failure. Ignoring the warning could result in data loss if the drive fails completely.
The technician should also back up the user's data immediately to avoid losing critical information.
Incorrect Options:
B: Update the PC's BIOS: While keeping the BIOS updated is a good practice, it does not address the S.M.A.R.T. error, which is specific to the HDD.
C: Close the ticket: Closing the ticket without resolving the issue would be improper, as the S.M.A.R.T. error is a hardware problem that needs to be addressed to prevent future data loss or downtime.
D: Change the NIC: The NIC (Network Interface Card) is unrelated to the storage system and would not resolve a S.M.A.R.T. error.
Key Takeaway:
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a critical indicator of HDD health issues, and the drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Backing up data is also essential.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1101), Domain 5.1 - Troubleshooting hard drives and RAID arrays.


NEW QUESTION # 75
A support technician receives a call stating that a user has added a device to the network. The user used the same configurations from another workstation. When both workstations are turned on, neither can access the network reliably. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  • A. The network cable was improperly terminated.
  • B. The new computer has a duplicate IP address.
  • C. The DNS server is registering both hostnames.
  • D. The security on the switchport needs to be reset.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If two devices have the same static IP address, an IP conflict occurs. This results in both devices being intermittently disconnected or unable to communicate on the network. It's a common mistake when copying configurations manually.
* Option B: DNS conflicts wouldn't cause total disconnection - and wouldn't occur just from copying IP settings.
* Option C: A cable issue would only affect one workstation.
* Option D: Switchport security issues wouldn't affect both machines simultaneously unless port security was configured very specifically.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.


NEW QUESTION # 76
A printer unexpectedly runs out of consumables in the middle of a print job. The printer requires polylactic acid (PLA) consumables. Which of the following printers is being used?

  • A. Laser printer
  • B. Impact printer
  • C. Inkjet printer
  • D. 3-D printer

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following cloud models maintains access, even when a local internet outage occurs?

  • A. Private
  • B. SaaS
  • C. Community
  • D. Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a private cloud model, the cloud infrastructure is maintained within a company's own data center and is used exclusively by that company. Private clouds offer the advantage of maintaining access even when a local internet outage occurs, since the cloud infrastructure is not dependent on a public network connection.
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud model in which software applications are hosted by a third-party provider and made available to customers over the internet. SaaS is not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage.
A community cloud is a shared infrastructure that is used by multiple organizations, typically from the same industry or with similar requirements. Community clouds are not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage.
A public cloud is a cloud infrastructure that is maintained by a third-party provider and is made available to the public over the internet. Public clouds are not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage.


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following technologies can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch?

  • A. VRRP
  • B. VPN
  • C. VLAN
  • D. DHCP

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technology that allows multiple networks to traverse a switch is VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) which is a logical grouping of devices on the same network regardless of their physical location12.
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) technology can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. A VLAN is a logical network created within a physical network that can separate traffic and allow multiple networks to coexist on the same physical network infrastructure. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), VPN (Virtual Private Network), and DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) do not allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.2


NEW QUESTION # 79
A user's Windows PC is unable to connect to the network at a new branch office that the user is visiting. A technician discovers the PC is unable to ping the local gateway. Which of the following commands should the technician use next?

  • A. ipconfig
  • B. show config
  • C. cd config
  • D. ifconfig

Answer: A

Explanation:
ipconfig is a command-line tool that displays the current configuration of the network interfaces on a Windows PC. It can also be used to release and renew the IP address, flush the DNS cache, and display the routing table. If the PC is unable to ping the local gateway, the technician should use ipconfig to check the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers of the PC. The technician can also use ipconfig
/renew to request a new IP address from the DHCP server, or ipconfig /flushdns to clear the DNS cache.
References
*[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 78
*How to use the ipconfig command on Windows 10
*How to Ping the Windows Network Router


NEW QUESTION # 80
A technician installed new firmware on the company's laser printers and has since been receiving multiple calls that information is garbled and looks like code. Only printers with the new firmware are having this issue. Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?

  • A. Install an updated printer driver on the print server
  • B. Reboot all the printers.
  • C. Change the language settings on the printers
  • D. Reboot all the machines having the issues

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to install an updated printer driver on the print server12. The issue of information being garbled and looking like code could be related to a compatibility issue with the new firmware and the existing printer driver1. The printer driver is responsible for converting the print job data into a format that the printer can understand and print2.


NEW QUESTION # 81
A user returns to work after a two-week vacation and cannot connect to an internal server. The remote drives were working the last time the user accessed them. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?

  • A. Determine if any infrastructure changes have been made.
  • B. Confirm a theory and determine the next steps to resolve the issue.
  • C. Reference the server vendor's documentation for guidance.
  • D. Conduct external research on the server software vendor's website.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first step in troubleshooting any network connectivity issue is to identify the scope and source of the problem. The technician should check if any infrastructure changes have been made during the user's absence, such as updates, patches, configuration changes, or hardware replacements. These changes could affect the network settings, firewall rules, permissions, or compatibility of the user's device or the server. The technician should also verify if other users or devices can access the server or if the problem is isolated to the user's device. By determining if any infrastructure changes have been made, the technician can narrow down the possible causes and formulate a theory to test.
References
Chapter 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
How to fix HTTP 500 internal server error?
Remote desktop connection: An internal error has occurred


NEW QUESTION # 82
A customer wants to archive a large number of photos and does not plan to retrieve them often. The customer wants a storage option that is the least expensive per gigabyte. Which of the following should the technician suggest?

  • A. 15,000rpm SAS
  • B. SCSI RAID
  • C. NVMe SSD
  • D. 5,400rpm HOD

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D. 5,400rpm HDD.
A 5,400rpm HDD (Hard Disk Drive) is a type of storage device that uses spinning magnetic disks to store data. A 5,400rpm HDD is the least expensive per gigabyte among the options given, as it has a lower rotational speed and performance than other types of HDDs or SSDs (Solid State Drives). A 5,400rpm HDD is suitable for archiving a large number of photos that are not accessed frequently, as it can offer high capacity and reliability at a low cost.
the average cost per gigabyte of a 5,400rpm HDD is around $0.02 to $0.0312, while the average cost per gigabyte of the other options are:
NVMe SSD: $0.10 to $0.1534
SCSI RAID: $0.20 to $0.305
15,000rpm SAS: $0.30 to $0.40
Therefore, a 5,400rpm HDD is the cheapest option among the four.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1: RAM & Storage Solutions Flashcards


NEW QUESTION # 83
An application developer formats and reconfigures a development PC after every application test is complete. Which of the following is the best way to improve the efficiency of this process?

  • A. Disabling hyperthreading
  • B. Installing an SSD
  • C. Enabling hardware acceleration
  • D. Implementing a sandbox

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best way to improve the efficiency of the process of formatting and reconfiguring a development PC after every application test is complete is to implement a sandbox. A sandbox is a virtual environment that isolates the application from the rest of the system, allowing the developer to test the application without affecting the main operating system, files, or settings. A sandbox can also be easily reset, deleted, or duplicated, saving the time and effort of formatting and reconfiguring the PC. A sandbox can also provide security benefits, such as preventing malware or bugs from spreading to the system or the network.


NEW QUESTION # 84
An online retailer is working to support increased sales and boost server capacity by installing additional servers. Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server will be properly utilized?

  • A. DNS
  • B. Virtualization
  • C. Load balancer
  • D. Clustering

Answer: C

Explanation:
Virtualization is a technology that allows creating multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical server. Each VM can run its own operating system and applications, and share the resources of the physical server, such as CPU, memory, disk, and network. Virtualization can help improve server utilization and management in several ways, such as:
- Reducing the number of physical servers needed to run the same workload, which can lower the costs of hardware, power, cooling, and maintenance1.
- Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the server infrastructure, as VMs can be created, deleted, moved, or resized on demand without affecting the other VMs or the physical server.
- Enhancing the availability and reliability of the server applications, as VMs can be backed up, restored, or migrated to another physical server in case of failure or maintenance.
- Improving the security and isolation of the server data, as VMs can be configured with different levels of access and protection, and separated from each other and the physical server.


NEW QUESTION # 85
A technician is setting up storage in a server that only has SAS connectors for storage. The technician wants the server to utilize RAID 10 for increased performance. Which of the following storage types should the technician install?

  • A. mSATA
  • B. NVMe M.2
  • C. Mechanical
  • D. Optical

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI, which is a type of interface that connects storage devices to servers or workstations. SAS supports both mechanical hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid state drives (SSDs), but not other types of storage devices, such as NVMe M.2, mSATA, or optical drives12.
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a method of combining multiple storage devices into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping), which means that data is written across two or more striped sets of mirrored drives34.
Therefore, the only type of storage device that the technician can install in a server that only has SAS connectors and wants to use RAID 10 is mechanical HDDs. Mechanical HDDs use spinning platters and moving heads to store and access data, and they are usually cheaper and have larger capacities than SSDs, but they are also slower and more prone to failure .
References:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 131 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.2:
Storage Interfaces, Page 97
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.4: RAID, Page 143 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.4:
RAID, Page 104
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 129 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.3:
Hard Disk Drives, Page 99


NEW QUESTION # 86
A user submitted a ticket to report an issue with a new printer that is no longer accepting new print jobs. The technician verifies the printer is on and notices the printer LCD screen has the following error message:
Paper Jam, Jam in fuser.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient next step the technician should complete?

  • A. Apply a maintenance kit to the printer
  • B. Turn the printer on and off to see if the error clears.
  • C. Replace the fuser.
  • D. Check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions1. The error message "Paper Jam, Jam in fuser" indicates that there is a paper jam in the fuser2
. The fuser is one of the parts of a laser printer most likely to fail without giving any explicit message2.
The printer LCD screen indicates a paper jam in the fuser. The most efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions. Applying a maintenance kit or replacing the fuser may not be necessary if the issue is caused by a paper jam.


NEW QUESTION # 87
A user complains that print jobs remain in the printer queue. A technician sends a ping command to the printer, and the printer replies successfully. The paper trays are full, and toner levels are okay. Which of the following is a reason the print jobs are getting stuck in the queue?

  • A. The first job in the queue is waiting for paper in the manual feed tray.
  • B. The printer is disconnected from the network.
  • C. The paper size for the last job in the queue is not available.
  • D. The print queue is unable to locate the printer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When print jobs remain stuck in the printer queue despite successful network communication (indicated by successful ping replies) and no issues with paper supply or toner levels, a common reason can be that the first job in the queue requires manual intervention, such as paper to be fed into a manual feed tray. Printers often pause the entire print queue if the first job requires a specific type of paper or manual insertion that hasn't been addressed, preventing subsequent jobs from processing.


NEW QUESTION # 88
A user reports the following:
1. When accessing large images, PC performance is degraded.
2. When accessing small text files, PC performance is as expected.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?

  • A. RAID array configuration errors
  • B. HDD fragmentation
  • C. Insufficient power supply
  • D. RAID controller failure

Answer: B

Explanation:
The issue described indicates that performance degradation occurs specifically when accessing large images, while small text files do not cause the same problem. This suggests a problem related to handling large files or data throughput.
HDD fragmentation is a common issue that can cause performance problems with large files, as fragmented files take longer to read and write. This issue would not typically affect the performance of small text files in the same way.


NEW QUESTION # 89
A technician is configuring a static WAN address on a SOHO router. Which of the following should the technician do?

  • A. Configure UPnP on the WAN.
  • B. Disable DHCP on the required port.
  • C. Adjust the LAN subnet mask to 255.255.255.0.
  • D. Enable IPv6 on all LAN interfaces.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Disabling DHCP ensures that the WAN port uses a static IP address, as DHCP is used to dynamically assign IP addresses. For a static configuration, disabling DHCP is necessary on the required port.


NEW QUESTION # 90
A department is upgrading its printers and wants to save money on consumables. Which of the following printer features would allow the department to cut costs?

  • A. Duplex
  • B. Scanner
  • C. Secure print
  • D. Collate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Duplex printing allows printing on both sides of a paper, which can significantly reduce paper consumption and costs associated with buying paper. This makes duplex printing the best feature for cutting costs on consumables.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.6: Given a scenario, deploy and configure multifunction devices/printers and settings.


NEW QUESTION # 91
A company has a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. The company reports that the first page is printing too light, although the following pages are still legible. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be fixed?

  • A. The print drum is worn and loose causing the printing to be light in places
  • B. The wrong type of filement is loaded, preventing it from sticking correctly
  • C. The fuser assembly is not calibrated properly, causing it to impact the paper too hard
  • D. The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output
  • E. The heating element has failed, and a new one needs to be installed for proper transfer

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 92
An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?

  • A. Metered utilization
  • B. Shared resources
  • C. Rapid elasticity
  • D. High availability

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question the online retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over.


NEW QUESTION # 93
A user reports intermittent connectivity. The technician checks the network logs and sees the following output:

Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

  • A. External interference
  • B. Jitter
  • C. High latency
  • D. Port flapping

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port flapping, or link flapping, occurs when a switch's port state goes up and down repeatedly in a short amount of time. It can be caused by bad cables or link synchronization issues.


NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following printing initiatives would be BEST to accomplish environmentally friendly objectives?

  • A. Locking down printing to only certain individuals
  • B. Changing the print quality settings to best
  • C. Requiring user authentication for printing
  • D. Modifying duplex settings to double-sided

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 95
......

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